Jehovah Witness Deception
Outline
(I) Section I
(II) Section II
(III) Section III
(IV) Section IV
(V) Section V
(VI) Section VI
(VII) Section VII
(VIII) Section VIII
(IX) Section IX
(X) Section X
(XI) Section XI
(XII) Section XII
(XIII) Section XIII
(XIV) Section XIV
(XV) Section XV
(XVI) Section XVI
(XVII) Section XVII
(XVIII) Section XVIII
(XIX) Section XIX
(XX) Section XX
(XXI) Section XXI
(XXII) Section XXII
(XXIII) Section XXIII
(XXIV) Section XXIV
(XXV) Section XXV
Teachings of the Jehovah Witnesses Are:
1. That the Holy Spirit is not a separate entity, but a force.
2. That Jesus is not God, but a god.
3. That Jesus created all things, yet He himself was created.
4. That He was created as Michael the Arch-angel, and returned to be Michael again after his death.
5. After His death and burial, Jesus’s body was destroyed in the tomb, annihilated by His Father,
and did not physically resurrect.
6. Jesus returned to earth in 1917.
7. There is no taking away of the church, (Rapture) to be with the Lord.
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Section II
Translations of the Bible:
The English Bible, of course is not the language of the original scriptures. The original language that the Old Testament was written in was Hebrew and a few verses were written in Chaldean. The New Testament was originally penned in Greek.
Today’s Bible was translated into English from one of two commonly accepted sources:
A. The translation of the text of all ancient known Papyrus Fragments, Uncials, Cursives, and Lectionaries, collectively are known as the “Receptus Textus” and “Masoretic text.”
The numbers of these documents are great, over 5,200 copies, plus 86,000 quotations or allusions to the Scriptures by early Church Fathers. Documented in 1888, by Dean John W. Burgon, the translation of the Papyrus Fragments can be found in the translation of the verses of the King James Bible.
B. The manuscripts of other commonly accepted translations of 45 other documents are commonly referred to as “B” Vatican, and the “Aleph” Sinai.” These manuscripts, though not as accurate as the “textus receptus, validate many parts of the “textus receptus,” word for word.
These manuscripts are those on which the English translations and transliterations such as the NIV, New Jerusalem Bible, living Bible, are based.
These two sources of documents are the only known scholarly sources from which the English Bible can be translated.
There are other Bibles, however, which choose to insert their own words in certain places, not found in either set of documents.
Phil wrote, “I read your comments, and the only thing that came to mind was, “WHAT ARE YOU TALKING ABOUT?”
This is the debate section of the forum. It’s to talk about, ask questions, discuss, and get insight. From YOUR statements above, YOU are NOT willing to debate, either about speaking in tongues or woman pastors. These are YOUR words, not mine. Apparently YOU’RE willing to teach about these things to those who will listen, but not discuss these issues with those who disagree with you. I presented my case systematically, then posted it.
There is an old maxim, “When a person cannot respond, or answer a question, he/she will begin to attact the person who asks the question.”
First of all are you sure you read my post before you responded?
Who said anything about Catholics? I am not a Catholic, but I grew up as one, that’s all I said.
Who said your comments were not welcome? YOU refuse to debate or discuss, not me. You responded negatively about my article, without any proof Scriptures.
Who said YOUR use of common language was less than worthy of my conversing with you? Show me these comments in quotes.
Who said YOU could not speak, or write on this forum? It’s not mine to determine.
YOU appear as others have done, to have sidestepped the original discussion and questions. Everything I said on this forum concerning this discussion, I supported with the Scriptures. I responded to your comments one by one. I put into quotations YOUR comments, and responded as we are commissioned to do with Scriptural facts and evidence. I ask all readers to read my remarks on this particular subject which can be found above.
Yet the same question remains unanswered,
“Where is your evidence concerning the Greek and Hebrew meaning of the word “Tongues?” Bring forward one recognized dictionary or Lexicon showing that the meaning of tongues means anything else other than a known language, idiom or dialect of a language spoken in a nation, or by a particular group of people. The request is not outlandish it’s reasonable, simple, and clear. It’s YOUR responsibility as a pastor to:
2 Tim.2:15, Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.” It’s not about me, you, or anyone else, it’s about truth, evidence, and Jesus Christ.
If you have the answer, please post it. If you do not have the answer, I will drop the discussion with you.
Thank you,
Phil LaSpino
words in their verses unintentionally, are at best commentaries or opinions.
If however, the intent of inserted incorrect words was deliberate, then that version of the Bible is corrupted and Satanic. Reread This Section
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Section III
One such Bible is the Jehovah Witnesses’ Bible, called the New World Translation of the Holy Scripture. (N.W.T.)
The Jehovah Witnesses have either found some new manuscripts, and have not chosen to reveal them to the world, or they have decided to change the Hebrew, Greek, and English language to suit their idea of who they believe Jesus is.
It is the sincerest opinion of this author, and many others, that their version has been intentionally corrupted and changed to suit their agenda, and thus a version of Satanic origin.
Reason Behind J.Witnesses Changes in the Bible.
Their main focus has been to destroy the glory of the Lord Jesus, making Him a creature, or (created being) inferior, in every way, to His Father.
Let’s begin by comparing their Bible with that of the King James, and the N.I.V. Bibles. Keep in mind, that all known legitimate manuscripts and accepted translations, agree with either the “textus receptus” or the Alpha & Beta documents.
This article will try to take you through a step by step process of changes, and the deception this organization has orchestrated in an effort to destroy Lord Jesus’ power and glory.
Reread This Section
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Section IV
The first challenge you can give a Jehovah Witness is this: Ask them if they believe in one true God. The answer is yes. Ask who is the one true God . They will answer, the Father. Next, ask them if Jesus is a false god. They will answer,” No.” Then ask them, if Jesus is not a false god, then He must be the true God. Jesus can not be almost a true god or he would be considered a false god. In any truth, if even the smallest untruth is inserted, than it is no longer the truth. Jesus is either the true God, or a false god. They will try to sidestep the question or change the subject.
The following change in text is the greatest deception of the JW Organization, and blasphemy against God’s written word John 1:1, All manuscripts agree with the following translation, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
The N.W.T. says “In (the) beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.”
Imagine calling Jesus a god, just another god, yet they acknowledge that He, Jesus, is the Creator of all (other) things, yet he, himself has been created. In this verse, Jesus is called, “the Word,” it is the Greek word,” Logos”, which stands for the pre-existent nature of Christ. Let me repeat that, Jesus, is called the Word of God, prior to His coming in the form of a man, this was one of His names, or titles. The Jehovah Witnesses have, in this verse, chosen to make the Lord Jesus, without any known manuscripts, no legitimate proof, “a god,” and not, the God.
You may ask what is the difference between, “a god”, and “the God?” The word “a”, or “an”, is the indefinite article, “an” being the original word. Its meaning is “one”, meaning, a single person or thing among many. It is a word of “number,” one being that number, and has the same meaning as, two, three, or any other number in the language. Example, if you had a basket of apples, and wanted one apple, any apple, from the basket, you would say, bring me an apple, any apple from that basket. So when the Witnesses say that Jesus is “a god,” he is thrown into the basket with all the other gods, he then is considered to be, just one of many gods.
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Section V
Men are called “gods,” Satan is called “a god”, there are gods of stone, wood, and metal,and some gods are said to be unseen. The Hindu religion has thousands of gods, and Jesus would be accepted into their religion without question. So according to the Jehovah Witnesses, Jesus (in John 1:1)is just another god, a god, one god among many gods, so the witnesses number Jesus with man, and Satan.
1. JWs are quick to point out seven references which agree in full, or in part with their own translation, “a god.”
A. The Emphatic Diaglott, this is one of their publications. But, let us take a closer look at this Diaglott. The Greek reads, “and a god was the Word.” Yet in their marginal translation, that which is next to the Greek, it said, “and the Logos was God.” Yes folks they call Jesus God, or Jehovah. So, in their own translation, they contradict themselves.
B. A second reference the witnesses use is, “The New World Translation of the Greek Scriptures.” This is their own publication of the Bible. This seems pretty desperate to quote from their own source material. This would be like Adolf Hitler quoting Mien Komph, as a reference, to prove that the holocaust was a just cause. What can I say?????
C. They quote three other sources. First, Das Evangelium nach Johannes, 1975, Second, Das Evangelium nach Johannes, 1978. Third, Das Evangelium nach Johannes, 1979. What’s wrong with this picture? These three sources, are most likely the same, but have different publication dates, publishers, or copyright dates. Five down and two to go.
D. They quote from, An American Translation, by J.M.P. Smith and E.J. Goodspeed, Chicago. From the Encyclopaedia Britannica, and its corresponding Dictionary. Mr… Goodspeed was a linguist and produced a noted, idiomatic, English version of the New Testament. Now one would ask, what does idiomatic mean? It is a peculiar characteristic, relating to, or conforming to idiom. An Idiom is the language peculiar to a group, such as a doctor or electrician, speaking in a professional idiom. Well, I would say, he most likely evoked many responses if he said, Jesus is “a god.”
E. We have challenged 6 of 7. The last source they quote was published in 1808, and is most likely out of print. In all my sources I could not find it. I would say this reference, and all of their other references are extreme failures, written by their own teachers, outdated, and never accepted by the Christian community. So, “the Word = (Jesus) was God.” = (Jehovah)
“The” is a definite article, and points to a very definite thing. In John 1, two of the titles used for Jesus are, the (Word), and secondly (God). These two titles, “the Word” and “God” imply that Jesus is the one and only Word of God, and that He, Jesus, is God, the Creator, both indicating that He is without equal.
Now getting back to the basket of apples; If in this basket we have marked one particular apple with an x, then ask someone to get that apple, the one with the x, this being the one and only apple in the basket that we desire to have. So also our Lord Jesus, being the Only Begotten of the Father, (no other) sent to be the God, that is the Creator, (the one and only) supreme over all things of the creation.
In the following, I will demonstrate to you, what lengths the Witnesses will go in order to de-glorify the Lord Jesus, by denying that Jesus is ever called “God” in the New Testament, and that Jesus is not the God of the Old Testament.
What is the meaning of the English word “God?” It is the title given to divinity. It is the Supreme Lord and Father of all, Jehovah, who is our Creator, the giver of life, he who holds all things together by the word of his power. It is a noun, a person’s title. An Example, President Bush, is President, but, he is also called the Chief executive, and Commander in Chief. These are a few of his titles, all being nouns, and names of offices, but his proper name is George Bush.
We know that Jesus has many titles. He is called the Saviour, the Lord, the Lamb, the Word, the Light, but His proper name is Jesus, Matt.1:25. This was the first time since the creation, that God has told us by what proper name, we were to call Him. Throughout the Bible, He was referred to by His many titles. Now the big question; Is Jesus ever directly referred to as God, or Jehovah in the New Testament???
The following verses in the New Testament, are without the definite article, “the” in front of the title “God.” All of the following verses will point to, or are directed at Jesus Christ being called God, yet the Jehovah Witnesses have decided, on their own, without any manuscripts to back them, to change the structure, words, and the wording of the following verses.
The Jewish Prophet Isaiah believed in, and worshipped one God. This being the case, in Isa.9:6, he wrote, that unto us a child is born, a son is given, and his name shall be called the mighty God. The word God here, is the Hebrew word “el”, it means God, the eternal Father, who possesses all power in heaven and in earth. The words mighty, and almighty, are both adjectives. Because the noun (God), dominates a sentence, weather He is called mighty or almighty does not change the fact that Jesus is called God, = (el) by Isaiah.
1. Phil.2:10-11, is quoted from Isaiah 45:23. Every Bible refers the reader from Phil.2:10, to Isa.45:23,
except the New World Translation. Why? Because in Isaiah these words were from Jehovah.
Isa.45:23, Jehovah said, “That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.” compare with,
King James Version. (K.J.V.)
Phil.2:10, is started as a new sentence. “That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” The word “Lord” in upper case, when speaking of God and Christ, means, Supreme Lord and sovereign of the universe, in Heb it usually refers to Jehovah, with or without the article. The Greek is,
“Kuros.” In the Hebrew it is the word, “Yehovah.”
New World Translation. (N.W.T.)
Phil.2:10, follows a comma in ver.9, instead of a period. The N.W.T., is the only Bible that ends ver.9 with a comma. The witnesses again in Verse 9 have added in brackets the word (other) giving their reader the impression that the name of Jesus is second to the name Jehovah. N.W.T. reads, “so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend(?) of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.”
“In the name of Jesus,” has been change to “at the name of Jesus; “bow” has been changed to “bend,” and “confess” has been changed to “acknowledge.”
A. The word “bow” in Greek, in the New Testament is spoken only of the knees. It is to pay homage, or worship.
B. The word “bend” is not a Greek word, but a Hebrew word, It means to string a bow, by stepping on it, archer, bend, come, draw, go over, guide, lead forth, thresh, tread, walk. It has nothing to do with paying homage or to worship.
The English word “bend,” means to change shape, or change someones will, yeild or submit. To yield or submit is not to worship, and this change of words, is to chip away at the glory of the Lord Jesus.
Reread This Section
K.J.V. Col.1:16, Speaks of the Lord Jesus, “For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:”
N.W.T. Col.1:16, Again the witnesses have ended verse 15 with a comma. Because of their teaching, and mistranslation of the word “firstborn,” in ver.15, they carry that idea of Christ being a created being, over to ver.16.
“because by means of him all (other) things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities.”
Compare, “For by him were all things created,” with,
“because by means of him all (other) things were created.” I guess the witnesses mean that Jesus was a tool in the Fathers hands, and that he being a created being could not create. Again this is done, in order to take away the power and glory of the Lord Jesus.
These verses show that only by Jesus Christ, have all things been created. By His power, and authority have all things been done. The whole of creation both visible, and spiritual, all rulers, kings, lords, shall bow their knee to Him.
2. John 20:28, K.J.V. “And Thomas answered and said unto him, (him being Jesus) My Lord and my God.” Thomas now acknowledges Jesus, as both Lord, meaning, Head over the Church, supreme over the gospel, Master, Teacher, and God, the Supreme Lord and sovereign of the universe.
N.W.T. John 20:28, “In answer Thomas said to him.” Notice this uncompleted statement has been abruptly ended with a period. They do not want to give the impression that Thomas called Jesus both “Lord” and “God.” They continue with, “My Lord and my God!” They use an explanination point to end this verse. They teach that Thomas is calling Jesus Lord, and calling the Father God, this is the reason they have broken the sentence in midstream. The sentence cannot be ended here because it is incomplete, Instead it should be followed by a coma, because of what was said after, “my Lord and my God.”
They used the word “my” which is a pronoun, the pronoun “my” being the word used instead of the name
“Thomas” to prevent the repetition of his name. The personal pronouns in English are, me, I, thou, you, he, she, we, ye, and they. “My”, belongs to the pronoun “me.” So the correct reading should be in their Bible, “In answer, Thomas said to him, (him being Jesus) my Lord and my God. Also the word “and” is a conjunction, connective, or conjoining word.
It signifies that the word “my God”, is to be added to what precedes it, that being the words, “my Lord.” In other words, “Thomas said, Thomas’s Lord, “and” Thomas’s God. “My God”, is added to “my Lord’ and speaks to the same person. So when Thomas called Jesus Lord, he also referred to him as God.
Now referring to the Jehovah Witnesses Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures, put out by their translation committee, page 513, it reads, “answered Thomas and he said to him the Lord of me and the God of me! Notice they did not use a period to separate the wording of the text, yet in the side interpretation, they added a colon (:) between him, and my. “In answer Thomas said to him: “My Lord and my God!” So they have three variations of this verse, and naturally, they teach the one that best suits their attitude toward Jesus. This is a deception, and Lie.
Rom.9:5, K.J. V. reads, “Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. A-men’.”
Rom.9:5, N.W.T. reads, “to whom the forefathers belong and from whom the Christ (sprang) according to the flesh: God, who is over all, (be) blessed forever. Amen.”
These are the words used in their Bible, yet they do not agree with their own Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures, which read, “the (one) being upon all (things) according to flesh, (note coma) the (one) being upon all (things), (note comma) God blessed (one) into the ages: amen.” Yet in the N.W.T., they have replaced comas with periods, and rearranged the structure of the verse.
Let us first come to the understanding of what this verse means. Who are the fathers, that this verse speaks of? They are probably Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, the 12 patriarches, Moses, Joshua, Samuel, David, etc. From these, the Jewish people descended, and these men, were the more renowned, as being the progenitors of the human nature of the Messiah. The word “and,” connects Christ’s physical birth, that is, his fleshly nature, to that of the fathers.
Next, It states, “He is over all, God blessed for ever.” Who is?? The context is about Jesus, so Jesus is who the verse speaks, for “Christ came, who is over all, God blessed, all separated by comas. So if this is speaking of Jesus, Jesus is said to be God who is over all. The Jehovah Witnesses teach that it is not Jesus who is called God here, but the Father.
Again notice, they end with an added period, this part of the verse, “according to the flesh(:) which they separated from, “God, who is over all.” By ending this verse, and moving “who is over all” after the title “God”, they give the idea this verse is not speaking of Christ, but the Father. They can now argue that Paul is speaking of the Father as being “God.” To conclude,
1. They differ from all the manuscripts that agree with the King James,
2. They differ from all the manuscripts that agree with the N.I.V, the Latin Vulgate, etc.
3. They differ from their own Interlinear Translation. Question, what authority do they base these changes on? they have none, none except their own prejudices.
Phil.2:6, K.J.V. “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.”
Phil.2:6, N.W.T., reads, “who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.”
Reread This Section
I will give you both of their translations; first, their Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures, second their Diaglott. Both are quoted, published, and considered to be the true translations to their own people.
1. The Interlinear Translation. “…who in form of God existing not snatching he considered the to be equal (things) to God, but himself he emptied form of slave having taken, in likeness of men having become;
2. Diaglott, “who in a form of God being, not a usurpation meditated the to be like to God, but himself emptied, a form of a slave having taken,” Well, if that isn’t some kind of mumbo jumbo, what is? Making sense of that would be a miracle in itself.
Question; Who can be in the form of God except God himself? Being in the form of the Father, as the Father, or like the Father, this being where the force of the antithesis or contrast would seem most naturally to be referring , in other words, the form or likeness of the divine majesty, and glory of the Father. And what are these contrasts?
The Father is Holy, Blessed, the Light, Life, All in All, the I Am, Creator, Supreme, etc. This must be the form that Jesus was said to have, for He contrasts each and every one. He, and only He, can declare the Father. He is exactly like His Father, Blessed, Holy, Creator, Lord, etc.
The Witnesses say this verse shows that even though Jesus was in the form of the Father, that he never tried to seize the Fathers power, or take the Father’s glory, or something like that. First of all, one cannot steal what already belongs to him.
God is a title, and not a proper name. It means, supreme Lord and Father of all, Creator. Jesus has been appointed by His Father, Lord, King, and Governor of all.
1. John 5:22, Jesus said, “For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the son.”
2. Matt.28:18, Jesus said, “All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.”
3. Acts 10:36, ” He is Lord of all.”
4. Phil.2:9, “God = (the Father) also hath highly exalted him, = (Jesus) and given him a name which is above every name:”
5. 1 Cor.15:27, “He = (Father) hath put all things under his feet,”
6. Eph.1:21-22, The Father “raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places. Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come: And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all.”
Question: What is it that Jesus has to rob? Answer, nothing! why? because the Father has given him all power and authority in Heaven, Earth, and under both Earth and Sea.
1 Tim.3:16, K. J. V. “God was manifest in the flesh.”
N.W.T. “He was made manifest in flesh.”
We see here that the organization, again tries to destroy who Jesus really is. God is replaced by He, and, “was manifest” has been replaced by, “was made manifest.” Manifest in the Greek means, to make apparent, known, to show openly, Let us examine their Bible, and then compare it to their Interlinear Translation and their Diaglott, translation of the verse before the verse.
“He was made manifest in flesh.” Their Bible reads, “Indeed, the sacred secret of this godly = (?) devotion is admittedly great.” The Interlinear reads,
1. “And confessedly great is the of the revering well mystery.” The word revering means to be regarding with fear mixed with respect and affection, venerating.
2. Their Diaglott reads, “and confessedly great is the of the piety secret:” Piety, being a compound word, and means veneration or reverence of the Supreme Being, and love of his character.” Their Bible translation talks about a godly devotion being great. Now, I am not sure if this means this godly devotion came in the form of Jesus Christ.?
Their Interlinear speaks of a revering well mystery.?? Your guess is as good as mine. Their Diaglott translation speaks of a piety secret, apparently this “piety secret” took on the form of Jesus Christ, so at least they acknowledged this secret as “piety,” giving the idea of something being supreme.
What a compound cover-up, a deception by words, and false translations. Yes folks, The Word was God, and God was then manifest in the flesh, and his name shall be called Jesus.
Heb.1:8, K. J. V. The Father is being quoted from an Old Testament verse in Psalm 45:6-7, He said, “But unto the Son (Jesus) he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.” Here we see the Father of our Lord Jesus calling His Son, God. Then, the Father said that His Son’s throne will be for ever.
N.W.T. Heb.1:8, “But with reference to the Son: God is your throne forever and ever, and (the) scepter of your kingdom is the scepter of uprightness.”
I have read, that the Dead Sea Scrolls agree with the Mesoratic text of the King James version, Old Testament, completely. Because this is so, I would think the Witnesses Old and New Testament translation’s would be revised. This verse is considered very strong proof for the Divinity of Christ. So this verse would be strongly attacked by the enemies of the Lord.
1. Ps.45:2, “Thou art fairer than the children of men,” The Targum reads, “Thy beauty, O king Messiah, is greater than the children of men,” It is said that this Psalm speaks of Davids Son, the Messiah, for this is His name.” Messiah is another title for the Lord Jesus.
2. Ez.34:24, “And David thy servant (This speaks of David’s Son, the Messiah) shall be a prince over them for ever.” Now if we were to believe the Jehovah Witnesses version, “God is your throne forever” the text of
Hebrews 1, the context of the whole verse can be no proof for their interpretation. In all due respect, the original Hebrew cannot be consistently translated any other way. It reads, “circa Elohim olam vaad” when translated, reads, “Thy throne, O God, is for ever, and to eternity.”
Jesus throne is in both worlds, and extends over all time; and will exist through all endless duration. Matthew 28:8, “All power is given unto me, both in heaven and Earth.” John 17:5,”And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.”
One side note concerning this verse. None of the ancient Versions read differently, and no Scholars, have understood it in the way suggested by any of those who deny the Godhead of Christ, either in the Psalm, or in Heb.1:8, from which it is taken. Aquils, Wyclif, Coverdale, Adam Clark, Tindal and others, plus Arabic writings, understood it as written in the K.J.V. I believe the evidence is overwhelming.
K.J.V. 1 John 5:20, “And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him = (the Father) that is true, and we are in him that is true,= (the Father) even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.” This verse identifies, and unites fully, Jesus with the Father, in all His attributes as the “only true God.
So also John 17:3. “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, = (the Father) and Jesus Christ, whom thou = (the Father) hast sent.” The word and, joins Jesus to the Father in every way. The contact, the closeness, the placing of the Lord Jesus with His Father in the Godhead, is proof by implication of Jesus being one with the Father in the Godhead.
N.W.T. 1 John 5:20, “But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity (?) that we may gain the knowledge of the true one. And we are in union with the true one, by means of (by means of is added) his Son Jesus Christ.
This is the true God and life everlasting.” The witnesses use the word (union) quite a bit in their translation of the bible, this to get a point across. Union is not a Greek or Hebrew word.
Therefore the witnesses can put their own spin on this word, making it mean what they what. Does it mean joined by words, actions, deeds? Does it mean as a servent is in union with his master?, or a joint partnership?, a friend with another friend? who knows? I doubt if they are in agreement with what they mean by union. Also most of the time it is placed in brackets, meaning it has been added to the verse by them.
1 “Given us an understanding” replaced with, “he has given us intellectual capacity.” Now exactly what is meant by “intellectual capacity”? I am not sure. The word, intellectual, come from the word intellect. It means, the power of knowing, the capacity for thought especially when highly developed. Capacity means, the ability to hold or accommodate, a measure of content, volume.
The Bible tells us to search the scriptures, and to receive from God, knowledge and wisdom, than we will be given the inner spiritual understanding to discern the things of God. From their rendering of this verse, I would not develop the idea that, this, “intellectual capacity” can be given to anyone, but has to be developed by the person themselves through prayer and study, in other words it does not come from God, but from our own abilities.
2. “That we may know him that is true, ” replaced with, “what we may gain the knowledge of the true one.” God is opposed to every idol, and false god. Jesus, by virtue of His oneness with the Father, is spoken of in the same breath with the Father as, “He that is true”.
3. “Even in his Son Jesus Christ.” replaced with, “that we may gain the knowledge of the true one.”
4. “This is the true God” replaced with, “and we are in union with the true one,” Jesus Christ is the last named person, so when it speakes of the true God, it is speaking of Jesus Christ. This is the reason the witnesses have moved the structure of the sentence around, changing the name of Jesus Christ with, ” the true one.” This Jesus, is the true God, identifying Him with the Father in all His attributes, John 17:3, “the only true God”
5. “And eternal life” replaced with, “by means of his Son Jesus Christ.” The Father is indeed eternal life as its source, but the Son also is that eternal life manifested, as,
1 John 1:2, “For the life was manifested, = (Jesus) and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;” also,
2. 1 John 5:11 and 13, “And this is the record that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son,” “These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.”
K.J.V. Rev.19:17, “Come and gather yourselves together unto the supper of the great God;” = (Jesus)
N.W.T. “Come here, be gathered together to the great evening meal of God,”
That is not much of a change, except when you realize how they teach this verse. They teach that the God, of this verse is the Father, Why? because the term “Almighty” is present in ver.15? This again reflects on their false teaching, that the word “Almighty” means the Father only, and the word “Mighty” can reflect on both Father and Son. I have always been under the impression that a noun, in this case, (God) dominates a sentence, and not the adjectives. (Mighty or Almighty) Here, God is the focus, and not the adjectives, mighty or Almighty.
Sharp’s Rule
A man named Granville Sharp, did a great deal of research on ancient Greek writers and poets. He realized a very important rule was used by Greek writers concerning the definite article, “the”.
When two or more personal nouns of the same gender, number, and case, are connected by the word,”and”, and if the first noun, for example, one of the titles of Jesus, He being called the “Word” and this title has the definite article “the” in front of it, and the second noun or title, that being the word, (God) does not have it’s own definite article, yet both titles relate to the same person, then both are committed to the same definite article “the”.
In other words if Jesus is called “the Word” note capital “W”, this always implies deity, and is one of Jesus many titles, then the title “God” note capital “G” will pick up the definite article, and the text would read like this, “and the Word (Jesus) was with God, (Father) and the Word (Jesus) was the God. To conclude, Jesus is, the God and not a god.
Let’s examine the word “God”, as it is used in these verses. Always keeping in mind,
1. The context of the verses.
2. To whom the writers are trying to communicate with,
3. The times in which they were written. Remember that the Jews and the Gentiles, who made up the early Church worshipped One God, He being the Creator.
The God that Christians worship, has many names, that is, titles of names, each being a name of entitlement. Each name giving a different understanding to His true nature and attributes. Example, when Jesus is called the Lord, we are acknowledging Him as being supreme over the Gospel dispensation, and Head over the Church. It is also used for one who is a Teacher, and Master.
“God”, is another title, and means, the supreme Lord and Father of all, Jehovah, He is Divine, Supreme, protector, benefactor, and the object of our worship. He is the author and giver of life. This is the meaning of the word “God.”
The Jehovah Witnesses acknowledge that Jesus is the Creator of all things, but He being created by His Father, makes him “a god.” So in order to prove their point, let us examine a few more verses of Scripture, and see what Biblical changes have been made by them, in order to prove their point. This point can only be accomplished by adding, subtracting, or changing words from known manuscripts.
K.J.V. John 1:3, and Col.1:16. “All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.” Notice the simplicity of this verse, it states that Jesus, made, “All” things, and that nothing was made without him.
N.W.T. “All things came into existence “through” him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence.” Notice the word “through”, they mean to say that it was not Jesus who Created, but another source, His Father, who used His Son as a tool for the Creation, and the power only passed “through him”, as water would pass through a strainer. In other words, the Son has no power in himself to Create anything, it all comes from the Father. If Jesus has no power to Create, then He can not be “God,” but is, “a god.”
K.J.V. Col.1:16, “For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones,= (earthly thrones) or dominions,= (princes, rulers) or principalities,= (princes or chiefs among angels) or powers:= (angels, arch-angels) all things were created by him, and for him:” All manuscripts agree with this translation.
N.W.T. “Because by means of him all (other) things have been created through him and for him.” Notice, in their translation, they have added the word (other), and changed “by him” to “through him.” This was done in order to continue their thought and teaching from verse 15. Now because of their false teaching on the word “firstborn”. Ver.15 speaks of Jesus as being “the firstborn of all creatures.”
The word “firstborn,” when concerning Jesus, means, the most excellent, most distinguished, or exalted. It gives the idea of his supreme dominion as the Lord, proprietor, ruler, and disposer of all persons and things.
“Firstborn” also has a second and more obvious meaning. For example, “This is the firstborn puppy, of a litter,” a firstborn child, etc. Firstborn, when referenced to Jesus,
deals with the dignity which was conferred upon Him, by His Father. Col.1:18, “He is the head = (firstborn) of the body, who is the beginning, the Church, the firstborn” from the dead: that in all things he might have the preeminence.” For Jesus suffering of death, He is crowned with glory and honor, thus He is termed the “first-born” or “first begotten from the dead, the heir of all things, (crowned with glory and honor.) That in all things he might have the preeminence.”
Jesus is called the “everlasting Father” in Isa.9:6, because He being the first, raised from the dead, the only one who ever exalted to the throne of glory in heaven, He was constituted both “Lord and Christ.”
N.W.T. “Because by means of him all (other) things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities.” In this verse the witnesses have inserted the words because, and (other).
This is done to decieve. Again they teach that although Jesus created all (other) things, He himself is created or (firstborn). Therefore, “because by means of him” him being Jesus, the Father used Jesus as His messanger boy, and spokesman, who created all other things. This gives the idea that Jesus has no power in himself, and that the power of the Father just passed through him. So Jesus as a created being, is just another “god,” one god among many other gods.
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By the way, let me add; the “son” that the Witnesses speak of, they teach is Michael the Archangel, that is way they have no problem calling his a “son”, and not the Son. They teach that he was Michael before he came as a child, and than again became Michael the archangel, after the cross.
The next verse to be compared is Revelation 1:1, The K.J.V. reads “The Revelation of Jesus Christ” and theirs reads,” A revelation by Jesus Christ.” In these five words we notice three changes,
1. “The” is changed to “A”,
2. “of” is changed to “by”,
3. The capital “R” in the word Revelation, is changed to a small “r”.
By changing “the” to “A”, If you remember what was stated in the above verses that the indefinite article “a” represents the number, one (1), the Witnesses have made it seem that, a revelation, is just one of many (other) revelations which the Lord has yet to reveal. This would fit in with their teaching, that the Lord has been using them, and will continue to use their organization, as His agent, giving them, further revelations concerning
“Jehovah’s anointed”, they, being the anointed. The definite article “the” points to a very specific, one of a kind, Revelation.
Next, they have changed “of Jesus Christ” to “by Jesus Christ.” There is not one known manuscript that verifies this rendering, it has no ligatimaticy. This gives the idea that this Book of Revelation, is not about Jesus, but about the Father. This is like saying, this is a book written by me, concerning someone else, instead of saying, this is a book written by me and is about me. This change fits in with their false teachings, that Jesus is not God, the object of every Christians worship.
By changing the word “of”, to “by”, then Jesus is not the “Alpha and Omega, the first and the last, the
“beginning and the ending”, “the Almighty.” He would not be the one “that liveth,” the one that has “the keys of hell and of death.” The one “to him be glory and dominion for ever,’ the one who will come with clouds, and every eye shall see him, and all the tribes of the earth shall wail because of him.
The Jehovah Witnesses give the glory of the Lord Jesus to another. They try to get to the Father in Heaven, through their organization, and not by Jesus Christ. One of their main themes is that Jesus is the “mighty God”, but not the “Almighty God.” Notice the hypocrisy here, they acknowledge that He, Jesus, is the “mighty God” of Isaiah 9:6, notice capital “G”, meaning Jehovah, yet they argue, that He is only “a god” in John 1:1. They fail to mention that the Almighty Jehovah, is also called the mighty Jehovah in Deut.7:21, 10:17, Josh.4:24, Ps.132:2, and
many, many other places of Scripture.
The Lord Jesus has been given all power and all authority in heaven, earth and under the earth, and their is no other name that every knee should bow, then, my question is, how much mightier can one get?
The last point is that they use the word revelation as a verb, and not a noun. As a noun, it is the act of disclosing, or discovering to others what was before unknown to them; it is the disclosure or communication of truth to men by God himself, or by an authorized agent, in this case Jesus Christ being both God and that agent. A thing unknown.
As a verb, it implies that Jesus is a messenger, and going to reveal or disclose an unknown or concealed secret, not about himself, but about his Father. So the correct rendering of this verse is, “The Revelation of Jesus Christ.”
One of the great support verses for John 1:1, is
1 Timothy 3:16. There is and has always been a great deal of controversy over this verse. If you believe John 1:1, then why would 1 Tim.3:16 be difficult? “God was manifest in the flesh.” Translation, “God took on the form of a man”
Now if Jesus is the “Word”, and is “God”, then “God was manifest in the flesh,” and in Matt.1:21,”and thou shalt call his name Jesus.” The K.J.B. is the only Bible to translate this verse, this way. The Witnesses translate the verse, “He was make manifest in flesh.” The problem with this translation is, so are you, me, and every one else manifest, or come in flesh. So their translation takes away from the great miracle of God, coming down to us, in the form of a man, born of a virgin.
This false translation also leaves the door open for the false teaching that the father of Jesus, is Joseph, and not God himself. The Witnesses do not teach that Joseph is the father of the Lord Jesus, but they do teach that He is created, thus leaving an open door for further corruption.
Example, K.J.V. Luke 2:33,”And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him.” Their version reads, “And its father and mother continued wondering at the things being spoken about “it” (referring to Jesus) Here they give the idea that Jesus has both a literal father and mother.
This verse rendered incorrectly, can give to readers a false idea, and it also feeds other cults, that teach, Jesus is not the Son of God, but, the son of Joseph. “Its father and mother.” By connecting father and mother, this can lead readers into error.
Again in Luke 2:43, K.J.V. “the child Jesus tarried behind in Jerusalem; and Joseph and his mother knew not of it.” Their version reads, “But when they were returning, the boy Jesus remained behind in Jerusalem, and (his parents) did not notice it.” Compare Joseph and his (Jesus) mother, with “his parents.” Although they do not say Joseph is Jesus father,again, this false translation feeds the cults that do teach that Jesus had an earthly father, and is not the Only begotten of the Father in Heaven.
Let us look at, Heb.1:5, K.J.V., This verse is revealing to us what the Father has said about His Son Jesus in times past, and is quoted from Ps.2:7, “For unto which of the angels said he (the Father) at any time, thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? and again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?”
Their version reads, “For example, to which one of the angels did he ever say: “You are my son; I, today, I have become your father”? And again: “I myself shall become his father, and he himself will become my son”? Let us examine the obvious differences. The word Son and Father have been changed from Capital to small letters.
Capitals always indicate deity, one of a kind. Small letters indicate that he is a son, one of many sons, also, that father, in small letters does not apply to the Father in heaven, but possibly Joseph.
Using their teaching, asking the question, and also quoting from their version, “to which one of the angels did he ever say, “you are my son?” The answer can be found in Job 1:6, “Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them.”
We Christians, are also called the sons of God. Now by changing the capital “S” to a small “s”, all the angels of heaven, Satan himself, are called “sons” of God. This would invalidate Jesus as being the Only Begotten Son of the Father in heaven.
So the answer to this questions is, no one else has ever been called the Only Begotten Son. Therefore, these words were not spoken to any other sons, as they would have you believe, only to the True Son, Jesus Christ. This verse having been quoted from Ps.2:7, and speaking about Jesus. “I will declare the decree: the LORD (the Father) hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”
Notice the K.J.V. not only quotes it correctly, but the word LORD, in capital letters agrees with the word Father, which is capitalized. Also the word Son in both cases agree, both being Capitalized. The Jehovah Witnesses do not have one manuscript to back their mis-representation, for the use of lower case letters in this verse.
The Witnesses in the above passages have changed the word “begotten,” to “I have become your father.” From my reading of the Bible, I know that Jesus has always been the Son of God, and the Father has always been His Father. They make it sound as if this was a new thing.
The word begotten in both Hebrew and Greek means, when speaking of the relation between the Father and Son, He who as the viceregent of God is figuratively called his Son, and whom therefore God is figuratively said to beget, to appoint, to declare, as a King. See Acts 13:33, “Of this man’s seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus:” Hebrews 5:5. “So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, today have I begotten thee.”
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